If a Red Notice subject applies for and is granted political asylum in a given country, does that necessarily mean that his claim to INTERPOL of politically motivated criminal charges will be successful?

And if a Red Notice subject's claim to INTERPOL that his Red Notice is based on a politically motivated criminal charge succeeds, does that necessarily mean that his petition for political asylum will be granted?

No and no. While this may seem counterintuitive, success (or failure) on one front does not dictate the same result on the other front. To understand why, imagine that a client has a Red Notice from Ethiopia and also seeks political asylum in the United States.