Inherent in the question posed by the title of this post is the fact that the word "trademark" has more than one meaning, in fact, multiple meanings in the English language.
Yet, some trademark types would have you believe that there is only one true meaning to the word "trademark" and that this meaning is not and cannot be as a verb. According to this viewpoint, all uses outside the confines of the Lanham Act are "misuses." Nevertheless, some of us trademark types don't share that narrow perspective, and some of us even have the audacity to think we have a solid and "fundamental understanding of American trademark law." In any event, since it has been more than a short while since writing on the topic of IP Grammar, I thought it might be time for a gut check on my position.
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